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Hi folks. I'm back to make a fool of myself again. It seems that I have a proof that the 'music' of the primes is caused by the interaction of a collection of sine waves. However, I have no idea whether this is old hat, trivial or interesting. Can somebody here tell me?

PS. I don't know why this question appears twice. The other can be deleted but it won't let me do it.

PS. I don't know why this question appears twice. The other can be deleted but it won't let me do it.

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